Answered

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Is 40/48 and 56/42 proportional

Sagot :

DrShrimpPuertoRico

No

The first fraction is under 1 whole while the second fraction is over 1 whole.

40/48 and 1  14/42 is what this is equal to.

May I have brainliest please? :)

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

the two fractions go down to

40/48= 5/6

56/42= 8/7

So, No

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